Benedict de Spinoza

Tuesday, October 8, 2013

TEI Modes of Perception pp 19-24



  • Message 1 of 2 , May 26, 2007
    [19] (1) Reflection shows that all modes of perception or knowledge
    may be reduced to four:-
    I. (2) Perception arising from hearsay or from some sign which
    everyone may name as he please.
    II. (3) Perception arising from mere experience - that is, from
    experience not yet classified by the intellect, and only so called
    because the given event has happened to take place, and we have no
    contradictory fact to set against it, so that it therefore remains
    unassailed in our minds.
    III. (19:4) Perception arising when the essence of one thing is inferred
    from another thing, but not adequately; this comes when [f] from
    some
    effect we gather its cause, or when it is inferred from some general
    proposition that some property is always present.
    IV. (5) Lastly, there is the perception arising when a thing is
    perceived solely through its essence, or through the knowledge
    of its proximate cause.

    [f] (1) In this case we do not understand anything of the cause
    from the consideration of it in the effect. (2) This is
    sufficiently evident from the fact that the cause is only
    spoken of in very general terms, such as - there exists then
    something; there exists then some power, &c.; or from the
    that we only express it in a negative manner - it is not
    or that, &c. (3) In the second case something is ascribed
    to the cause because of the effect, as we shall show in an
    example, but only a property, never an essence.

    *****
    In the footnote [f] Spinoza says we will get an example later, which
    is probably "when they see that by this process the number is
    produced which they knew beforehand to be the proportional, they
    infer that the process always holds good..." from p23s3

    I'm reposting [19] in part because I do not yet feel clear that we
    know what "from some sign which everyone may name as he please,"
    means. Does he mean cases like ancient Hawaiians believing that
    volcanic activity means that Madam Pele is angry? But we are still
    plenty superstitious generally, if this is what Spinoza means. For
    basically superstitious reasons, I abstain from the consumption of
    shark flesh...

    With regard to Perceptions II and III, while these will be discarded
    as useless for philosophic research, it may be of interest to refine
    our awareness a bit both of the principal of induction, and of
    knowledge inferred from general principals. Hume's "Treatise on the
    Human Understanding" and Russell's "Problems of Philosophy" go into
    these at some length, and are pretty much "intelligible to the
    multitude." Suffice to say, that at best, these kinds of knowledge
    yield probabilities within a reality which, to an extent, "exists"
    only because of our agreement to participate in affirming it. Other
    cultures may have separate realities, which could be closer to the
    truth than our version. But we can't know if they are, because we
    are conditioned to accept certain premises which may be contradictory
    to those of others. For example, most of us affirm that a human being
    is "solid," whereas another take on reality presumes a human to be
    like "a luminous egg" of which solidity is not a property.
    *****
    [20] (1) All these kinds of perception I will illustrate by examples.
    (2) By hearsay I know the day of my birth, my parentage, and other
    matters about which I have never felt any doubt. (3) By mere
    experience I know that I shall die, for this I can affirm from
    having seen that others like myself have died, though all did not
    live for the same period, or die by the same disease. (4) I know
    by mere experience that oil has the property of feeding fire, and
    water of extinguishing it. (5) In the same way I know that a dog
    is a barking animal, man a rational animal, and in fact nearly all
    the practical knowledge of life.
    *****
    It's interesting that Spinoza chooses death as an example out of all
    the possibilities. As far as water extinguishing fire, did Spinoza
    only know this fact because it happened over and over again in the
    past? Wasn't it known that fire required the presence of a certain
    level of air which is not found in water? Couldn't a "cause" be
    inferred from other examples of fire being extinguished, e.g.inside a
    sealed jar, covered with soil, and so on? I'm not seriously
    challenging p20s5, however, if memory serves, Hume's "Treatise on the
    Human Understanding" shows convincingly that there is little in the
    way of observable ratiocination to distinguish men from dogs, if one
    is to judge by their behavior, and how they typically learn through
    repetitions of associated experiences.
    *****
    [21] (1) We deduce one thing from another as follows: when we
    clearly perceive that we feel a certain body and no other, we
    thence clearly infer that the mind is united [g] to the body,
    and that their union is the cause of the given sensation; but
    we cannot thence absolutely understand [h] the nature of the
    sensation and the union. (2) Or, after I have become acquainted
    with the nature of vision, and know that it has the property of
    making one and the same thing appear smaller when far off than
    when near, I can infer that the sun is larger than it appears,
    and can draw other conclusions of the same kind.

    [g] (1) From this example may be clearly seen what I have just
    drawn attention to. (2) For through this union we understand
    nothing beyond the sensation, the effect, to wit, from which
    we inferred the cause of which we understand nothing.
    [h] (1) A conclusion of this sort, though it be certain, is yet
    not to be relied on without great caution; for unless we are
    exceedingly careful we shall forthwith fall into error.
    (2) When things are conceived thus abstractedly, and not
    through their true essence, they are apt to be confused by the
    imagination. (3) For that which is in itself one, men imagine
    to be multiplex. (4) To those things which are conceived
    abstractedly, apart, and confusedly, terms are applied which are
    apt to become wrested from their strict meaning, and bestowed on
    things more familiar; whence it results that these latter are
    imagined in the same way as the former to which the terms were
    originally given.

    *****
    p21s1 shifts gears, radically and a bit suddenly, from the fairly
    mundane, to the very subtle and intimate. We are no longer in
    relationship with the "outside world" as before, with fire, dogs,
    etc. We may have believed we were "experiencing" that world
    directly. Now, Spinoza raises a question in my mind. Do we
    ordinarily clearly perceive that "we feel a certain body and no
    other?" Is this related to Russell saying that we don't know anything
    to certainly exist, except our own sense-data? It's quite an
    experiment to see if we can do this "feeling a certain body and no
    other," (I must assume he is saying we feel our own body, nothing
    else) and also thereby clearly infer that the mind is united to the
    body, etc. In Ethics, Spinoza maintains that the mind "feels." Can
    the mind "feel" the idea of the body as a whole without reference to
    an external cause? Yoga, I think, says so. If a posture is done
    correctly, the entire body is a unified homogenous field of energy
    (prana), as is the mind which is the reflection.
    *****
    [22] (1) Lastly, a thing may be perceived solely through its essence;
    when, from the fact of knowing something, I know what it is to know
    that thing, or when, from knowing the essence of the mind, I know
    that it is united to the body. (2) By the same kind of knowledge
    we know that two and three make five, or that two lines each parallel
    to a third, are parallel to one another, &c. (3) The things which I
    have been able to know by this kind of knowledge are as yet very few.
    *****
    By "a thing," or "things," in p22s1 and s3 respectively, we suppose
    actually existent things, not "beings of reason." p22 seems to
    maintain what I think most philosophers deny. Russell, for example,
    says we are acquainted with our sense-data, not a thing in itself,
    and only probably with ourselves. In TPT Spinoza states flatly that
    few people know themselves. Spinoza endeavors to show what he means
    by giving us (abstract) examples in p22s2, which could be piled up
    indefinitely, but then he explains immediately thereafter
    (indirectly) that he's not really talking about what he was just
    giving so many examples of, because the "things" he knows by the mode
    in question are in fact very few. He could name these very few
    things, one supposes, but he does not. If he had told us, perhaps we
    might concentrate on understanding those few things too. What could
    they be?
    *****
    [23] (1) In order that the whole matter may be put in a clearer
    light, I will make use of a single illustration as follows.
    (2) Three numbers are given - it is required to find a fourth,
    which shall be to the third as the second is to the first.
    (23:3) Tradesmen will at once tell us that they know what is required
    to find the fourth number, for they have not yet forgotten the rule
    which was given to them arbitrarily without proof by their masters;
    others construct a universal axiom from their experience with simple
    numbers, where the fourth number is self-evident, as in the case of
    2, 4, 3, 6; here it is evident that if the second number be
    multiplied by the third, and the product divided by the first,
    the quotient is 6; when they see that by this process the number
    is produced which they knew beforehand to be the proportional,
    they infer that the process always holds good for finding a fourth
    number proportional.

    [24] (1) Mathematicians, however, know by the proof of the nineteenth
    proposition of the seventh book of Euclid, what numbers are
    proportionals, namely, from the nature and property of proportion
    it follows that the product of the first and fourth will be equal
    to the product of the second and third: still they do not see the
    adequate proportionality of the given numbers, or, if they do see it,
    they see it not by virtue of Euclid's proposition, but intuitively,
    without going through any process.
    *****
    Spinoza's proportionals are an elegant demonstration if you are of a
    certain type, I suppose, but an example might work better for me
    which could not be so readily imagined as scaled relative quantities.
    "I am exactly here at this moment." Or, "I'm here, now." Do I go
    through a process to understand these propositions? I guess
    Descartes did.
    *****

    "The general principles of science, such as the belief in the reign of
    law, and the belief that every event must have a cause, are as
    completely dependent upon the inductive principle as are the
    beliefs of daily life. All such general principles are believed because
    mankind have found innumerable instances of their truth and no
    instances of their falsehood. But this affords no evidence for their
    truth in the future, unless the inductive principle is assumed."

    -Bertrand Russell, Problems of Philosophy

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